While one might be shocked at the presentation of such a question about such a historically controversial subject, one might also not be worse off to simply read their Constitution of the United States…
Let’s have a look at the 13th Amendment to the Constitution of the United States:
Section 1. Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction.
Section 2. Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.
So, let’s break this down and comprehend what this really means:
The phrase “Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted…” simply translates to –
“Slavery and involuntary servitude are illegal unless the court system (the state) makes it legal by conviction (court order).
In other words…
“The state has the authority to enslave you simply by convicting you of a crime and sending you to private prison or requiring community service through state approved agencies.”
Now we must understand that slavery in the United States was not legal or illegal until individual states made it so. Instead, it was just an accepted practice of common law brought over to the United States by the English settlers who were already accustomed to owning slaves. While southern states continued with their tolerance of the ownership of people (of any race or color) either through slavery or by indentured servitude (involuntary servitude), one by one the Northern states individually outlawed the practice, though this was not necessarily done by altruistic means as much as political ones.
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